The linguistic term "Indo-European family" appeared in/kloc-0 at the beginning of the 9th century, and was named after its distribution in India and Europe.

For example, the word "China" in English is actually a transliteration of the word "zhina”chini in Sanskrit.

PS； The word zhina is not derogatory. Xuanzang went to India and said I was from China. It was a normal word at that time, but it is another matter to be derogated in modern times.

Ancient Rome, also an Indo-European language family, was called China Sinoa, and later English China and French Chine all came from this etymology. "Records of the Western Regions of Datang" (A Record of Xuanzang) records: "Wang Yue:' Where is the kingdom of Datang? "According to the road broadcast, how far is it from here to Sri Lanka?" Right:' When Wan Li is in the northeast, India calls Maha to that country. '

"zhina", Portuguese, Dutch, German, China in English and Chine in French all originate from Indian Sanskrit and have been recognized by academic circles.

So, if you find that Sanskrit is similar to English, it's no big deal. If you say who copied who, it is of course that English copied Sanskrit, because English is a variant of Latin, and Sanskrit is an ancient language and one of the mother tongues of Indo-European languages. ?

PS: The accurate English translation of the world of women in love is as follows (refer to Master Cheng Guan, translating Buddhist scriptures into English 5 "Tibetan Scriptures English")

The sounds in Sanskrit can be directly the pinyin of Latin, so English comes from Latin, so the sounds in Sanskrit are directly written in Latin in English.

For example, "Guanyin" is not his English: Guan? Stone? Yin Dynasty in China

But "Guanyin Bodhisattva", because of the wide range of Chinese pinyin, do you think it's right for America? Stone? Yin or Guan? Yin. He knows what you are talking about, too.